Generally, no.  The court presumes that all property that is not a gift or inheritance is to be divided equally between the parties, but may alter this distribution without regard to marital misconduct after considering the following:

1.  Length of the marriage.

2. Property brought to the marriage.

3. Whether one of the parties has substantial assets not subject to division.

4. The contribution of each party to the marriage, giving appropriate economic value to each parties contribution in homemaking and child care services.

5. The age and physical and emotional health of the parties.

6. The contribution of one party to the education, training or increased earning power of the other.

7. The earning capacity of each party.

8. The desirablility of awarding the family home or right to live therein for a reasonable period of time to the party having physical placement.

9. The amount and duration of an order granting maintenance to either party.

10. Family support payments and whether the property division is in lieu of such payments.

11. Other economic circumstances of each party.

12. The tax consequences to each party.

13. Any written agreement made by the parties before or during the marriage concerning property distribution.

14.  Such other factors as the court deems relevant.

Applying these factors, you may make an argument that despite the presumption of equal division, you should be awarded a premarital interest of your residence.